I'm not sure I could do it. You've turned these into complicated calculations, because you keep changing systems. We have FLW, CW and FLCW. You also use standard and reverse standard. It would also depend on how many systems you accept, because each additional system complicates it further.Alex wrote: Sun Feb 15, 2026 4:32 am What is the probability of this:
FLW of rs Vs(726) = 777
CW of Vs(729) = 777
FLCW of rs Vs(777) = 726
15 verses has a rs FLW of 777
18 verses has a std CW of 777
23 verses has a rs FLCW of 726
The second part is probably doable, but on first glance, all I can say is that 15, 18 and 23 are about what I'd expect. There is no code there, nothing.
The basic principle is that each time you have 31102 chances of hitting the number you want, which usually isn't far from the mean value for the sum of the first and the last words. Can you see that for a spread of 2000, you have a 1 in 2000 chance of hitting the number you want each time. With 31000 goes you are virtually certain to hit it a few times. The binomial formula tells you roughly what the modal value is, which is the highest probability (easily found by varying the number of successes). You are never far from that, so there is no code here.
The linking of verse 726 with an FLW of 777 has possibilities within that for a code being present, but you keep changing the system you use.
Alex, this is NOT how you look for codes. All you're doing is changing systems until you get what you want.