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CWH
05-04-2009, 09:21 PM
Hi,

There are some evidences to show that woman was made out of man:

Genesis 1: 27 So God created man in his own image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.

Genesis 2 :21 21 So the LORD God caused the man to fall into a deep sleep; and while he was sleeping, he took one of the man's ribs [i] and closed up the place with flesh. 22 Then the LORD God made a woman from the rib [j] he had taken out of the man, and he brought her to the man.
23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called 'woman, [k] '
for she was taken out of man."

Note the bold words above:
1) There is a Man in the Woman
2) There is Male in the Female
3) There is a he in the she
4) There is a he in the her

In Genesis 2:23, Adam named the "man" that came out of him as "woman" in his own language. Therefore the evidences are found in the language that woman came out of man:

23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called woman
for she was taken out of man"

Amazing? There is more.....
.... there is a lad in the lady
.....Who is the other "M" in Mother?

Many Blessings:)

gregoryfl
05-04-2009, 09:26 PM
So very true brother. :thumb: And how much more glorious the fulfillment of the physical shadow, for we, the church, were in Christ, the last Adam, and when God put him to sleep on the cross, he opened his side, and the bride, the woman, the church, came out to be presented to him.

Ron

CWH
05-05-2009, 05:18 AM
Hi,

There are more revelations:

Genesis 2:24 For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh.

Genesis 3:20 Adam [c] named his wife Eve, [d] because she would become the mother of all the living.

...There is a "F" in Father; who is this "F" in Father?...Female?
...There is a "M" in Mother; who is the other "M" in Mother? Man?.... Male?...and Eve is the mother of all the living.

Therefore, Female (F) + Man/Male (M) = "and they will become one flesh".
When "they become one flesh" means they will start a Family
And FAMILY stands for Father And Mother I Love You !

That's what a happy Family should be.

Many Blessings.

Victor
05-05-2009, 02:21 PM
Hi,

There are some evidences to show that woman was made out of man:

Genesis 1: 27 So God created man in his own image,
in the image of God he created him;
male and female he created them.

Genesis 2 :21 21 So the LORD God caused the man to fall into a deep sleep; and while he was sleeping, he took one of the man's ribs and closed up the place with flesh. 22 Then the LORD God made a woman from the rib [j] he had taken out of the man, and he brought her to the man.
23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called 'woman, [k] '
for she was taken out of man."

Note the bold words above:
1) There is a Man in the Woman
2) There is Male in the Female
3) There is a he in the she
4) There is a he in the her

In Genesis 2:23, Adam named the "man" that came out of him as "woman" in his own language. Therefore the evidences are found in the language that woman came out of man:

23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called woman
for she was taken out of man"

Amazing? There is more.....
.... there is a lad in the lady
.....Who is the other "M" in Mother?

Many Blessings:)

Wonderful wordplays!

And the best part of it is that the same coincidental phenomenon appears in the Hebrew language, as shown in the very words of Adam above!

Gen 2:23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called 'woman,' [[I]isha]
for she was taken out of man [ish]."

So all these coincidences in English have a Hebrew biblical predecessor.

Note how the Anchor Bible notices the same phenomenon:

http://www.geocities.com/joshwaxman/speiser-isha.jpg

A deeper examination of this issue can be found in the blog Balashon - Hebrew Language Detective (http://www.balashon.com/2008/10/ish-and-isha.html).

Victor
05-05-2009, 02:41 PM
So very true brother. :thumb: And how much more glorious the fulfillment of the physical shadow, for we, the church, were in Christ, the last Adam, and when God put him to sleep on the cross, he opened his side, and the bride, the woman, the church, came out to be presented to him.

Ron

Amen and amen!! :pray:

Such a supernatural fulfillment! Christ became Man and gave His flesh to us. The last Adam could say to His Bride:

"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called woman [the Church],
for she was taken out of man [Christ]."

And who is the first person to meet Christ when He wakes up from His sleep in the stylized account of John? A woman in a garden! (20:14-16) There she was - MM, Mary Magdalene, serving as a typological image of the whole Church. Adam was the keeper of the garden in Genesis and Mary thinks that Jesus is a gardener in John. The correspondence is impressive and precise.

And mimicking the first word of Adam after he wakes up, what are the first words spoken by the resurrected Christ? "Woman!"

Christ the Husband is ready to meet His Wife! (cf. John 20:19-31)

CWH
05-05-2009, 09:02 PM
Wonderful wordplays!

And the best part of it is that the same coincidental phenomenon appears in the Hebrew language, as shown in the very words of Adam above!

Gen 2:23 The man said,
"This is now bone of my bones
and flesh of my flesh;
she shall be called 'woman,' [isha]
for she was taken out of man [ish]."

So all these coincidences in English have a Hebrew biblical predecessor.

Note how the Anchor Bible notices the same phenomenon:

http://www.geocities.com/joshwaxman/speiser-isha.jpg

A deeper examination of this issue can be found in the blog Balashon - Hebrew Language Detective (http://www.balashon.com/2008/10/ish-and-isha.html).

Hi Victor,

It is not the wonderful wordplay that I am trying to portray but the linguistic relationships in regard to other languages such as Hebrew, Greek, etc. so as to prove my point that woman came from man. A good example is your above example:
... there is an ish (man) in the isha (woman) and not the other way round that there is an isha (woman) in the ish (man).

There was once a single language in the world until God came to confuse it. I believe that even if God confused the single language, basic ideas in that language remains in every language in the world and one of them which serves as evidence, is that woman came from man. Other basic ideas that are the same in any language in the world are month, day and night, death, marriage etc.

Other things that I am tryig to portray in my thread using wordplay are the sanctity of marriage and family.

By the way, woman literally means "man with the womb".

Many Blessings.

Victor
05-06-2009, 07:54 AM
Hi,

There are more revelations:

Genesis 2:24 For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and they will become one flesh.

Genesis 3:20 Adam [c] named his wife Eve, [d] because she would become the mother of all the living.

...There is a "F" in Father; who is this "F" in Father?...Female?
...There is a "M" in Mother; who is the other "M" in Mother? Man?.... Male?...and Eve is the mother of all the living.

Therefore, Female (F) + Man/Male (M) = "and they will become one flesh".
When "they become one flesh" means they will start a Family
And FAMILY stands for Father And Mother I Love You !

That's what a happy Family should be.

Many Blessings.

Add to that the classic equation given by Gematria:

Father (3) + Mother (41) = Child (44)
Av + Am = Yalad

Victor
05-06-2009, 08:16 AM
Hi Victor,

It is not the wonderful wordplay that I am trying to portray but the linguistic relationships in regard to other languages such as Hebrew, Greek, etc. so as to prove my point that woman came from man. A good example is your above example:
... there is an ish (man) in the isha (woman) and not the other way round that there is an isha (woman) in the ish (man).

I see. There are puzzling linguistic similarities, but we need to find evidence that these similarities are due to historical relationships between languages. Even within the same language the similarity may not be due to the words being cognates. Case in point: ish and isha are not cognates, but the text of Scripture correlates them anyway. Similarly, male and female are likely not cognates but they share the same phonetic affinity that ish and isha do. And all these "coincidences" may be designed by God.


I understand that the woman comes from the man, but the Bible is clear that man comes from the woman as well. This is Divine Symmetry.
1Co 11:11 Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord.


1Co 11:12 For as the woman is of the man, even so is the man also by the woman; but all things of God.

There was once a single language in the world until God came to confuse it. I believe that even if God confused the single language, basic ideas in that language remains in every language in the world and one of them which serves as evidence, is that woman came from man. Other basic ideas that are the same in any language in the world are month, day and night, death, marriage etc.

Other things that I am tryig to portray in my thread using wordplay are the sanctity of marriage and family.

Oh yes, sanctity (qadosh) and marriage (qiddush)! The same word (Quph-Dalet-Shin).


By the way, woman literally means "man with the womb".

Many Blessings.
Do you have some evidence of that?

God Bless,
Victor

CWH
05-06-2009, 10:07 AM
I see. There are puzzling linguistic similarities, but we need to find evidence that these similarities are due to historical relationships between languages. Even within the same language the similarity may not be due to the words being cognates. Case in point: ish and isha are not cognates, but the text of Scripture correlates them anyway. Similarly, male and female are likely not cognates but they share the same phonetic affinity that ish and isha do. And all these "coincidences" may be designed by God.


I understand that the woman comes from the man, but the Bible is clear that man comes from the woman as well. This is Divine Symmetry.
1Co 11:11 Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord.


1Co 11:12 For as the woman is of the man, even so is the man also by the woman; but all things of God.


Oh yes, sanctity (qadosh) and marriage (qiddush)! The same word (Quph-Dalet-Shin).


Do you have some evidence of that?

God Bless,
Victor
Hi Victor,

I got it from a Bible commentary which says that woman is "womb-man". I find this literal definition more realistic as woman may not necessary be the "wife of man" as in your definition, as some women may not get married or married to the same sex.

We know that Eve is the mother of all living, yet it wasn't mentioned that Adam is the father of all living. Eve came from Adam and yet Eve became his wife and bored him children. I find it quite odd and very uncomfortable:
1) Genesis 4 : 1 "Then Adam had intercourse with his wife ... and she bored him a son." Eve came from Adam and Adam slept with Eve; it's like somebody came from your own body and you slept with that somebody.
2) Genesis 4 : 17, Note: "Cain (son of Adam and Eve) had a wife...." Where did the wife came from? Who else were living at that time besides Adam and Eve?
3) Genesis 4 : 13-15, Note:
13 Cain said to the LORD, "My punishment is more than I can bear. 14 Today you are driving me from the land, and I will be hidden from your presence; I will be a restless wanderer on the earth, and whoever finds me will kill me."

15 But the LORD said to him, "Not so [e] ; if anyone kills Cain, he will suffer vengeance seven times over." Then the LORD put a mark on Cain so that no one who found him would kill him.

Who is that whoever? who is that anybody? who is that no one? Where did they came from other than Adam and Eve?

Many Blessings.

gregoryfl
05-06-2009, 10:34 AM
I too have heard of that meaning, but unfortunately it is not true. Sounds neat, but is not based on the facts of the Hebrew language. Man is "ish." Woman is "ish" with a feminine ending on the word "ah", making woman "ishah."

The feminine ending means "out of", and you can see that meaning expressed in what was said as to the reason for her being called woman:

Gen 2:23 The man said, 'This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh. She will be called ‘woman,’ because she was taken out of Man.'

Ron

Victor
05-07-2009, 03:56 AM
Hi Victor,

I got it from a Bible commentary which says that woman is "womb-man". I find this literal definition more realistic as woman may not necessary be the "wife of man" as in your definition, as some women may not get married or married to the same sex.

What commentary is it?

When did I "define" "woman" as "wife of man"?


We know that Eve is the mother of all living, yet it wasn't mentioned that Adam is the father of all living. Eve came from Adam and yet Eve became his wife and bored him children. I find it quite odd and very uncomfortable:
1) Genesis 4 : 1 "Then Adam had intercourse with his wife ... and she bored him a son." Eve came from Adam and Adam slept with Eve; it's like somebody came from your own body and you slept with that somebody.
2) Genesis 4 : 17, Note: "Cain (son of Adam and Eve) had a wife...." Where did the wife came from? Who else were living at that time besides Adam and Eve?
3) Genesis 4 : 13-15, Note:
13 Cain said to the LORD, "My punishment is more than I can bear. 14 Today you are driving me from the land, and I will be hidden from your presence; I will be a restless wanderer on the earth, and whoever finds me will kill me."

15 But the LORD said to him, "Not so [e] ; if anyone kills Cain, he will suffer vengeance seven times over." Then the LORD put a mark on Cain so that no one who found him would kill him.

Who is that whoever? who is that anybody? who is that no one? Where did they came from other than Adam and Eve?

Many Blessings.

Those are classic questions that have been answered in a simple manner long ago. Wanna go through them?

Victor
05-07-2009, 03:57 AM
I too have heard of that meaning, but unfortunately it is not true. Sounds neat, but is not based on the facts of the Hebrew language.

Hey Ron, what specific meaning do you speak of?

Victor

gregoryfl
05-07-2009, 12:48 PM
Hey Ron, what specific meaning do you speak of?

Victor


I refer to the idea that woman means "womb man." Richard Verstegan was the first known person to promote that idea back in 1605 in a book he wrote. Unfortunately, like many other false etymological fallacies, it has remained to this day.

Ron

Victor
05-07-2009, 01:09 PM
I refer to the idea that woman means "womb man." Richard Verstegan was the first known person to promote that idea back in 1605 in a book he wrote. Unfortunately, like many other false etymological fallacies, it has remained to this day.

Ron

Correct. It is a very nice similarity. Woman ~ womb man, but it is folk etimology. Of course it could be a little of divine irony, since God is the ultimate one "in charge of" language development.

I find it wonderful that the word Mother in Hebrew is Aleph + Mem, revealing the primary force of the letter Mem which has the grammatical value of "from". Richard wrote about it in the Bible Wheel Book (http://www.biblewheel.com/Wheel/Spokes/Mem_1Chronicles.asp):

Variations on the Hebrew em (mother) are nearly universal throughout the world's languages, such as ma, mama, mom, mum, em, imma, amma. This points to Hebrew as the primordial language of the whole human race because it is only in Hebrew that we see the intrinsic coherence of this mama word with the literal meaning of Mem as water and its grammatical role as the sign of the preposition from. For what is a mother but she from whom we all come? And how do we come but through water? We all floated for nine months in the amniotic sac, and when the water broke, we were born into this world.
This one doesn't seem to be a coincidence, but something designed by God.

CWH
05-07-2009, 07:53 PM
Hi Victor,

Woman = Womb-man came from old English as stated in Webster dictionary in 1928:
Webster's 1928 dictionary explains that the word 'woman' is a combination of the words, 'womb' and 'man.' Woman therefore means 'womb man' or 'man with a womb.' When God created woman, he put within her a womb.

The Chinese character for woman, lady and female is an ideogram of a pregnant lady pronounce as "ni ren". Literally it means "pregnant man". Note that Chinese i.e. Mandarin is one of the oldest language still in use today, more than 4,000 years ago and about the time God confused the single language but the basic idea remains.

http://http://chineseculture.about.com/library/symbol/blcc_woman.htm

http://www.bellaonline.com/articles/art29595.asp

Many blessings.

CWH
05-09-2009, 03:34 AM
Hi,

There are more....
.....There is an Adam in Madam
.....Who is the M in Madam?
.....Maid = M aid? or Man's aid?

Are these mere wordplays or co-incidences or God's designs?

Many Blessings.

Victor
05-09-2009, 08:14 AM
That's really very curious. :D As I said above, since God is the Lord of All Things, He can have influenced things so that we have a whole set of "coincidences" in the English language that echo the biblical ish/isha.

Here's the summary of wordplays:

1) There is a Man in the Woman
2) There is Male in the Female
3) There is a he in the she
4) There is a he in the her
5) There is a lad in the lady
6) There is a "F" in Father; who is this "F" in Father?...Female?
7) There is a "M" in Mother; who is the other "M" in Mother? Man?.... Male?
8) There is an Adam in Madam
9) Who is the M in Madam?
10) Maid = M aid? or Man's aid?

Very nice! :thumb:

CWH
06-17-2009, 06:24 AM
Hi,

Here is another proof that woman came from man. This time it has nothing to do with word plays but proven in Biology. This is explained in this website:

http://biology.about.com/od/basicgenetics/p/chromosgender.htm

Sex Chromosomes X-Y:
The male gametes or sperm cells in humans and other mammals are heterogametic and contain one of two types of sex chromosomes. They are either X or Y. The female gametes or eggs however, contain only the X sex chromosome and are homogametic. The sperm cell determines the sex of an individual in this case. If a sperm cell containing an X chromosome fertilizes an egg, the resulting zygote will be XX or female. If the sperm cell contains a Y chromosome, then the resulting zygote will be XY or male.

What it means is:
1. Male has an unique sex chromosome Y which Female do not have.
2. the gender (whether male or female) is determine by the sperm cell (whether X or Y) which is from man, in other words, or male or female came from man.
3. The sperm contains either X or Y (let's call it Male X and Male Y)chromosome whereas the egg has only X chromosome (let's call it Female X). That means that :
- the Male X + Female X = Female (XX), therefore there is a Male X in a Female = there is a Male in the Female
- the Male Y + Female X = Male (XY), therefore there is a Male Y(unique in Male) = there is a Male in a Male.

Amazing.

Many Blessings.:)

CWH
08-05-2009, 04:57 AM
Hi,

There are some more word plays. Why are men involved in mainly womens' issues? Because women came from men! :lol: :
- menstruation, dysmennorheoa, mental stress, hymen, menopause etc.

I personally believe that these may be word plays but God is the one who confused the world languages yet He maintains some humorous connections.

God Blessings to all.

Silence
08-06-2009, 06:17 PM
After reading earlier in the discussion about the words ish/ishah and learning that they are supposedly not etymlogically related, and that ishah comes from the word enosh, I began to wonder why Adam would have called Eve 'ishah' when she had not yet fallen to sin and been ravaged by it's effects. Enosh means man in the sense that he is mortal. From it's root word, it also implies frailty, feebleness, etc. If ishah is derived from this word, why would Adam use it to describe her before she ate of the tree? Seems strange. Was Adam a prophet and foretelling something here? There is no way to tell, but I thought I would bring it up as something to think about.