Rose
02-09-2010, 10:17 AM
.
I know this topic has been discussed and re-discussed ad-naseum, but I'm hoping to approach it from a slightly different angle.
The question I would like to ask is:
Why should the words that Jesus spoke to His Disciples in the Olivet Discourse concerning the tribulation they would suffer for their testimony, not apply to those Disciples, when they were the ones who first suffered at the hands of their fellow Jews, and then the Romans?
Rose
I know this topic has been discussed and re-discussed ad-naseum, but I'm hoping to approach it from a slightly different angle.
The question I would like to ask is:
Why should the words that Jesus spoke to His Disciples in the Olivet Discourse concerning the tribulation they would suffer for their testimony, not apply to those Disciples, when they were the ones who first suffered at the hands of their fellow Jews, and then the Romans?
Rose